1/13/23 REVELATION 1:1a, PART 6

We’ll start today with a simple observation:

“The Revelation…The word, according to Jerome on Gal. i.11,12, is peculiar to the Scriptures, and is not used by Greek classical writers.” [from THE CAMBRIDGE BIBLE FOR SCHOOLS AND COLLEGES: THE REVELATION OF S. JOHN THE DIVINE WITH NOTES AND INTRODUCTION, by William Henry Simcox, 1891]

But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man. For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ. (Galatians 1:11-12; KJV) 

I found this thought a bit peculiar…that the word apokalupsis would only be found in Scripture. I think that this is not entirely true. Quora online has an answer written by a Greek person who has a BA in Classics and MA in Byzantine History:

“Originally, apokalupto and apokalupsis were used for mundane things, specifically the uncovering of one’s head. Gradually, they acquired metaphorical meanings, such as the uncovering of secrets. That extended to divine mysteries, hence the New Testament Apocalypse, aka Revelation.”

A secular source to be sure, but appropriate when trying to determine the secular use of the word apokalupsis. A word meaning the ‘mundane’ uncovering of various things is probably not a word needed very often in ‘mundane’ writings, thus, a reader of mostly Scriptural Greek probably wouldn’t run into it much as a ‘mundane’ word.

Continue reading